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December 02, 2008


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Nathan Richardson

If courts can be manipulated by the success of protests, how is it that they are "post-political"? Isn't this just politics operating in an unconventional way? A popular movement is achieving its objectives by influencing some government organs directly, others indirectly. True, it's a bottom-up rather than top-down type of politics, and maybe it requires a pretty broad definition of the term, but it doesn't seem to be independent operation of a technocratic institution either.

Instead, it seems like a large segment of the population lost faith in the parties and other parts of the traditional political system, and decided to take their politics elsewhere. It seems more like your standard revolution or coup (in, happily so far, bloodless form) than an example of "post-politics".

In other words, the courts don't seem so technocratic when there is a mob outside influencing how they rule. Maybe that result is better than Thailand's previous corrupt political system, but it doesn't seem particularly judicial.

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